"The piety and devotional mood that permeate the psalms and that find their origin in an intense personal relationship with God strike a responsive chord among modern men and women."
(page237)
This is certainly a true statement. But as i've considered it (most of yesterday) that phrase of " . . . an intense relationship with God . . ." has troubled me.
I'm asking whether it's enough to be moved by something written by someone else who was in this type of relationship with God. Sure we may be moved by it, we may even pray or sing the psalms to God, and these are great and noble things; but i think the challenge goes deeper.
Surely the focus falls on our own relationship with God. Are we moved because of the piety and devotional mood, or because we are intensely involved with Jesus and these are expressions we can empathise with and use as our own?
I'm asking whether it's enough to be moved by something written by someone else who was in this type of relationship with God. Sure we may be moved by it, we may even pray or sing the psalms to God, and these are great and noble things; but i think the challenge goes deeper.
Surely the focus falls on our own relationship with God. Are we moved because of the piety and devotional mood, or because we are intensely involved with Jesus and these are expressions we can empathise with and use as our own?
